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<html>
<body>
<h2>Computational_complexity_theory</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 0.0</h3>
<p>To further highlight the difference between a problem and an instance, consider the following instance of the decision version of the traveling salesman problem: Is there a route of at most 2000 kilometres passing through all of Germany's 15 largest cities? The quantitative answer to this particular problem instance is of little use for solving other instances of the problem, such as asking for a round trip through all sites in Milan whose total length is at most 10 km. For this reason, complexity theory addresses computational problems and not particular problem instances.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>By how many kilometers does the traveling salesman problem seek to classify a route between the 15 largest cities in Germany?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2000</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 0.1</h3>
<p>An example of a decision problem is the following. The input is an arbitrary graph. The problem consists in deciding whether the given graph is connected, or not. The formal language associated with this decision problem is then the set of all connected graphs—of course, to obtain a precise definition of this language, one has to decide how graphs are encoded as binary strings.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What is the term for the set of all connected graphs related to this decision problem?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>formal language</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>The formal language</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>The formal language associated with this decision problem</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 0.2</h3>
<p>Upper and lower bounds are usually stated using the big O notation, which hides constant factors and smaller terms. This makes the bounds independent of the specific details of the computational model used. For instance, if T(n) = 7n2 + 15n + 40, in big O notation one would write T(n) = O(n2).</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How would one write T(n) = 7n2 + 15n + 40 in big O notation? </td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>T(n) = O(n2)</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>T(n) = O(n2)</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>T(n) = O(n2)</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 0.3</h3>
<p>Other important complexity classes include BPP, ZPP and RP, which are defined using probabilistic Turing machines; AC and NC, which are defined using Boolean circuits; and BQP and QMA, which are defined using quantum Turing machines. #P is an important complexity class of counting problems (not decision problems). Classes like IP and AM are defined using Interactive proof systems. ALL is the class of all decision problems.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>BQP and QMA are examples of complexity classes most commonly associated with what type of Turing machine?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>quantum</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>quantum</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>quantum</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 0.4</h3>
<p>The graph isomorphism problem is the computational problem of determining whether two finite graphs are isomorphic. An important unsolved problem in complexity theory is whether the graph isomorphism problem is in P, NP-complete, or NP-intermediate. The answer is not known, but it is believed that the problem is at least not NP-complete. If graph isomorphism is NP-complete, the polynomial time hierarchy collapses to its second level. Since it is widely believed that the polynomial hierarchy does not collapse to any finite level, it is believed that graph isomorphism is not NP-complete. The best algorithm for this problem, due to Laszlo Babai and Eugene Luks has run time 2O(√(n log(n))) for graphs with n vertices.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>To what level would the polynomial time hierarchy collapse if graph isomorphism is NP-complete?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>second level</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>second</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>second</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 0.5</h3>
<p>Many known complexity classes are suspected to be unequal, but this has not been proved. For instance P ⊆ NP ⊆ PP ⊆ PSPACE, but it is possible that P = PSPACE. If P is not equal to NP, then P is not equal to PSPACE either. Since there are many known complexity classes between P and PSPACE, such as RP, BPP, PP, BQP, MA, PH, etc., it is possible that all these complexity classes collapse to one class. Proving that any of these classes are unequal would be a major breakthrough in complexity theory.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Where can the complexity classes RP, BPP, PP, BQP, MA, and PH be located?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>between P and PSPACE</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>between P and PSPACE</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>between P and PSPACE</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Southern_California</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 1.0</h3>
<p>Southern California, often abbreviated SoCal, is a geographic and cultural region that generally comprises California's southernmost 10 counties. The region is traditionally described as "eight counties", based on demographics and economic ties: Imperial, Los Angeles, Orange, Riverside, San Bernardino, San Diego, Santa Barbara, and Ventura. The more extensive 10-county definition, including Kern and San Luis Obispo counties, is also used based on historical political divisions. Southern California is a major economic center for the state of California and the United States.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What are the ties that best described what the "eight counties" are based on?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>demographics and economic ties</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>economic</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>demographics and economic</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 1.1</h3>
<p>Southern California includes the heavily built-up urban area stretching along the Pacific coast from Ventura, through the Greater Los Angeles Area and the Inland Empire, and down to Greater San Diego. Southern California's population encompasses seven metropolitan areas, or MSAs: the Los Angeles metropolitan area, consisting of Los Angeles and Orange counties; the Inland Empire, consisting of Riverside and San Bernardino counties; the San Diego metropolitan area; the Oxnard–Thousand Oaks–Ventura metropolitan area; the Santa Barbara metro area; the San Luis Obispo metropolitan area; and the El Centro area. Out of these, three are heavy populated areas: the Los Angeles area with over 12 million inhabitants, the Riverside-San Bernardino area with over four million inhabitants, and the San Diego area with over 3 million inhabitants. For CSA metropolitan purposes, the five counties of Los Angeles, Orange, Riverside, San Bernardino, and Ventura are all combined to make up the Greater Los Angeles Area with over 17.5 million people. With over 22 million people, southern California contains roughly 60 percent of California's population.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many metropolitan areas does Southern California's population encompass?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>seven</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>seven</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>seven</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 1.2</h3>
<p>The motion picture, television, and music industry is centered on the Los Angeles in southern California. Hollywood, a district within Los Angeles, is also a name associated with the motion picture industry. Headquartered in southern California are The Walt Disney Company (which also owns ABC), Sony Pictures, Universal, MGM, Paramount Pictures, 20th Century Fox, and Warner Brothers. Universal, Warner Brothers, and Sony also run major record companies as well.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Other than Universal and Warner Brothers, what other company runs a major record company?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Sony</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Sony</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Sony</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 1.3</h3>
<p>Many locals and tourists frequent the southern California coast for its popular beaches, and the desert city of Palm Springs is popular for its resort feel and nearby open spaces.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Other than the desert city why do many locals and tourists frequent southern California?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>beaches</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>for its popular beaches</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>beaches</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 1.4</h3>
<p>"Southern California" is not a formal geographic designation, and definitions of what constitutes southern California vary. Geographically, California's north-south midway point lies at exactly 37° 9' 58.23" latitude, around 11 miles (18 km) south of San Jose; however, this does not coincide with popular use of the term. When the state is divided into two areas (northern and southern California), the term "southern California" usually refers to the ten southern-most counties of the state. This definition coincides neatly with the county lines at 35° 47′ 28″ north latitude, which form the northern borders of San Luis Obispo, Kern, and San Bernardino counties. Another definition for southern California uses Point Conception and the Tehachapi Mountains as the northern boundary.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Geographically speaking, where is California's north - south midway point in terms of latitude?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>37° 9' 58.23"</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>37° 9' 58.23"</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>37° 9' 58.23"</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>The term "southern" California usually refers to how many of the southern-most counties of the state?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>ten</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>ten</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>ten</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 1.5</h3>
<p>Subsequently, Californios (dissatisfied with inequitable taxes and land laws) and pro-slavery southerners in the lightly populated "Cow Counties" of southern California attempted three times in the 1850s to achieve a separate statehood or territorial status separate from Northern California. The last attempt, the Pico Act of 1859, was passed by the California State Legislature and signed by the State governor John B. Weller. It was approved overwhelmingly by nearly 75% of voters in the proposed Territory of Colorado. This territory was to include all the counties up to the then much larger Tulare County (that included what is now Kings, most of Kern, and part of Inyo counties) and San Luis Obispo County. The proposal was sent to Washington, D.C. with a strong advocate in Senator Milton Latham. However, the secession crisis following the election of Abraham Lincoln in 1860 led to the proposal never coming to a vote.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many times did southern California attempt to achieve a separate statehood?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>three</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>three</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>three</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 1.6</h3>
<p>The San Bernardino-Riverside area maintains the business districts of Downtown San Bernardino, Hospitality Business/Financial Centre, University Town which are in San Bernardino and Downtown Riverside.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Other than Downtown San Bernardino, and University Town, what is the name of another business district in the San Bernardino-Riverside area?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Hospitality Business/Financial Centre</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Downtown Riverside</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Hospitality Business/Financial Centre</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 1.7</h3>
<p>Six of the seven lines of the commuter rail system, Metrolink, run out of Downtown Los Angeles, connecting Los Angeles, Ventura, San Bernardino, Riverside, Orange, and San Diego counties with the other line connecting San Bernardino, Riverside, and Orange counties directly.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>A single line connects San Bernardino, Riverside and what other county?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Orange</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Orange</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Orange</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Sky_(United_Kingdom)</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 2.0</h3>
<p>Formed in November 1990 by the equal merger of Sky Television and British Satellite Broadcasting, BSkyB became the UK's largest digital subscription television company. Following BSkyB's 2014 acquisition of Sky Italia and a majority 90.04% interest in Sky Deutschland in November 2014, its holding company British Sky Broadcasting Group plc changed its name to Sky plc. The United Kingdom operations also changed the company name from British Sky Broadcasting Limited to Sky UK Limited, still trading as Sky.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What company was formed by the merger of Sky Television and British Satellite Broadcasting?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Who is the UK's largest digital subscription television company?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.1</h3>
<p>While BSkyB had been excluded from being a part of the ONdigital consortium, thereby making them a competitor by default, BSkyB was able to join ITV Digital's free-to-air replacement, Freeview, in which it holds an equal stake with the BBC, ITV, Channel 4 and National Grid Wireless. Prior to October 2005, three BSkyB channels were available on this platform: Sky News, Sky Three, and Sky Sports News. Initially BSkyB provided Sky Travel to the service. However, this was replaced by Sky Three on 31 October 2005, which was itself later re-branded as 'Pick TV' in 2011.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many BSkyB channels were available to customers prior to October 2005?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>three</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>three</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>three</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.2</h3>
<p>BSkyB initially charged additional subscription fees for using a Sky+ PVR with their service; waiving the charge for subscribers whose package included two or more premium channels. This changed as from 1 July 2007, and now customers that have Sky+ and subscribe to any BSkyB subscription package get Sky+ included at no extra charge. Customers that do not subscribe to BSkyB's channels can still pay a monthly fee to enable Sky+ functions. In January 2010 BSkyB discontinued the Sky+ Box, limited the standard Sky Box to Multiroom upgrade only and started to issue the Sky+HD Box as standard, thus giving all new subscribers the functions of Sky+. In February 2011 BSkyB discontinued the non-HD variant of its Multiroom box, offering a smaller version of the SkyHD box without Sky+ functionality. In September 2007, Sky launched a new TV advertising campaign targeting Sky+ at women. As of 31 March 2008, Sky had 3,393,000 Sky+ users.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>WHat allows customers to get Sky+ functions if they do not subscribe to BSkyB's channels?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>monthly fee</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a monthly fee</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>SkyHD box</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.3</h3>
<p>BSkyB utilises the VideoGuard pay-TV scrambling system owned by NDS, a Cisco Systems company. There are tight controls over use of VideoGuard decoders; they are not available as stand-alone DVB CAMs (conditional-access modules). BSkyB has design authority over all digital satellite receivers capable of receiving their service. The receivers, though designed and built by different manufacturers, must conform to the same user interface look-and-feel as all the others. This extends to the Personal video recorder (PVR) offering (branded Sky+).</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Who has design authority over all of the digital satellite receivers that are capable of using their service?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.4</h3>
<p>In 2007, BSkyB and Virgin Media became involved in a dispute over the carriage of Sky channels on cable TV. The failure to renew the existing carriage agreements negotiated with NTL and Telewest resulted in Virgin Media removing the basic channels from the network on 1 March 2007. Virgin Media claimed that BSkyB had substantially increased the asking price for the channels, a claim which BSkyB denied, on the basis that their new deal offered "substantially more value" by including HD channels and Video On Demand content which was not previously carried by cable.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What additional srevice did BSkyB offer besides HD channels that they claimed offered "substantially more value"?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Video On Demand</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Video On Demand content</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>HD channels and Video On Demand</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What additional srevice did BSkyB offer besides Video on Demand that they claimed offered "substantially more value"?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>HD channels</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>HD channels</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>HD channels</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.5</h3>
<p>On 18 November 2015, Sky announced Sky Q, a range of products and services to be available in 2016. The Sky Q range consists of three set top boxes (Sky Q, Sky Q Silver and Sky Q Mini), a broadband router (Sky Q Hub) and mobile applications. The Sky Q set top boxes introduce a new user interface, Wi-Fi hotspot functionality, Power-line and Bluetooth connectivity and a new touch-sensitive remote control. The Sky Q Mini set top boxes connect to the Sky Q Silver set top boxes with a Wi-Fi or Power-line connection rather than receive their own satellite feeds. This allows all set top boxes in a household to share recordings and other media. The Sky Q Silver set top box is capable of receiving and displaying UHD broadcasts, which Sky will introduce later in 2016.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What are the Sky Q mini set top boxes able to connect to?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Sky Q Silver set top boxes</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the Sky Q Silver set top boxes</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Sky Q Silver</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.6</h3>
<p>BSkyB launched its HDTV service, Sky+ HD, on 22 May 2006. Prior to its launch, BSkyB claimed that 40,000 people had registered to receive the HD service. In the week before the launch, rumours started to surface that BSkyB was having supply issues with its set top box (STB) from manufacturer Thomson. On Thursday 18 May 2006, and continuing through the weekend before launch, people were reporting that BSkyB had either cancelled or rescheduled its installation. Finally, the BBC reported that 17,000 customers had yet to receive the service due to failed deliveries. On 31 March 2012, Sky announced the total number of homes with Sky+HD was 4,222,000.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many people were registered to receive the HD service prior to launch?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>40,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>40,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>40,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What was the name of the set top box manufacturer that BSkyB was having issues with?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Thomson</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Thomson</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>STB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What was the number of customers that the BBC reported had yet to receive the service due to failed deliveries?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>17,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>17,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>17,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What was the total number of homes Sky announced that had Sky+HD in March of 2012?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>4,222,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>4,222,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>4,222,000</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.7</h3>
<p>Provided is a universal Ku band LNB (9.75/10.600 GHz) which is fitted at the end of the dish and pointed at the correct satellite constellation; most digital receivers will receive the free to air channels. Some broadcasts are free-to-air and unencrypted, some are encrypted but do not require a monthly subscription (known as free-to-view), some are encrypted and require a monthly subscription, and some are pay-per-view services. To view the encrypted content a VideoGuard UK equipped receiver (all of which are dedicated to the Sky service, and cannot be used to decrypt other services) needs to be used. Unofficial CAMs are now available to view the service, although use of them breaks the user's contract with Sky and invalidates the user's rights to use the card.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What service is a VideoGuard UK equipped receiver dedicated to decrypt?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Sky</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Sky</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Sky service</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.8</h3>
<p>BSkyB has no veto over the presence of channels on their EPG, with open access being an enforced part of their operating licence from Ofcom. Any channel which can get carriage on a suitable beam of a satellite at 28° East is entitled to access to BSkyB's EPG for a fee, ranging from £15–100,000. Third-party channels which opt for encryption receive discounts ranging from reduced price to free EPG entries, free carriage on a BSkyB leased transponder, or actual payment for being carried. However, even in this case, BSkyB does not carry any control over the channel's content or carriage issues such as picture quality.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Does BSkyB carry any control over a channels content?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>not</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>not</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB does not carry any control</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.9</h3>
<p>Virgin Media (re-branded in 2007 from NTL:Telewest) started to offer a high-definition television (HDTV) capable set top box, although from 30 November 2006 until 30 July 2009 it only carried one linear HD channel, BBC HD, after the conclusion of the ITV HD trial. Virgin Media has claimed that other HD channels were "locked up" or otherwise withheld from their platform, although Virgin Media did in fact have an option to carry Channel 4 HD in the future. Nonetheless, the linear channels were not offered, Virgin Media instead concentrating on its Video On Demand service to carry a modest selection of HD content. Virgin Media has nevertheless made a number of statements over the years, suggesting that more linear HD channels are on the way.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What was the one linear HD channel Virgin Media carried from November 2006 to July 2009?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BBC HD</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BBC HD</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BBC HD</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 2.10</h3>
<p>The agreements include fixed annual carriage fees of £30m for the channels with both channel suppliers able to secure additional capped payments if their channels meet certain performance-related targets. Currently there is no indication as to whether the new deal includes the additional Video On Demand and High Definition content which had previously been offered by BSkyB. As part of the agreements, both BSkyB and Virgin Media agreed to terminate all High Court proceedings against each other relating to the carriage of their respective basic channels.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What company agreed to terminate high court proceedings with Virgin Media?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>BSkyB</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Steam_engine</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 3.0</h3>
<p>It is a logical extension of the compound engine (described above) to split the expansion into yet more stages to increase efficiency. The result is the multiple expansion engine. Such engines use either three or four expansion stages and are known as triple and quadruple expansion engines respectively. These engines use a series of cylinders of progressively increasing diameter. These cylinders are designed to divide the work into equal shares for each expansion stage. As with the double expansion engine, if space is at a premium, then two smaller cylinders may be used for the low-pressure stage. Multiple expansion engines typically had the cylinders arranged inline, but various other formations were used. In the late 19th century, the Yarrow-Schlick-Tweedy balancing 'system' was used on some marine triple expansion engines. Y-S-T engines divided the low-pressure expansion stages between two cylinders, one at each end of the engine. This allowed the crankshaft to be better balanced, resulting in a smoother, faster-responding engine which ran with less vibration. This made the 4-cylinder triple-expansion engine popular with large passenger liners (such as the Olympic class), but this was ultimately replaced by the virtually vibration-free turbine engine.[citation needed]</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What are engines using four expansion stages known as?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>quadruple expansion engines</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>quadruple</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>quadruple expansion engines</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.1</h3>
<p>The history of the steam engine stretches back as far as the first century AD; the first recorded rudimentary steam engine being the aeolipile described by Greek mathematician Hero of Alexandria. In the following centuries, the few steam-powered "engines" known were, like the aeolipile, essentially experimental devices used by inventors to demonstrate the properties of steam. A rudimentary steam turbine device was described by Taqi al-Din in 1551 and by Giovanni Branca in 1629. Jerónimo de Ayanz y Beaumont received patents in 1606 for fifty steam powered inventions, including a water pump for draining inundated mines. Denis Papin, a Huguenot refugee, did some useful work on the steam digester in 1679, and first used a piston to raise weights in 1690.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>In what year did Jerónimo de Ayanz y Beaumont patent a water pump for draining mines?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1606</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1606</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1606</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1606</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.2</h3>
<p>The final major evolution of the steam engine design was the use of steam turbines starting in the late part of the 19th century. Steam turbines are generally more efficient than reciprocating piston type steam engines (for outputs above several hundred horsepower), have fewer moving parts, and provide rotary power directly instead of through a connecting rod system or similar means. Steam turbines virtually replaced reciprocating engines in electricity generating stations early in the 20th century, where their efficiency, higher speed appropriate to generator service, and smooth rotation were advantages. Today most electric power is provided by steam turbines. In the United States 90% of the electric power is produced in this way using a variety of heat sources. Steam turbines were extensively applied for propulsion of large ships throughout most of the 20th century.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Above what horsepower are steam turbines usually more efficient than steam engines that use reciprocating pistons?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>several hundred</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>several hundred horsepower</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>several hundred</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.3</h3>
<p>The heat required for boiling the water and supplying the steam can be derived from various sources, most commonly from burning combustible materials with an appropriate supply of air in a closed space (called variously combustion chamber, firebox). In some cases the heat source is a nuclear reactor, geothermal energy, solar energy or waste heat from an internal combustion engine or industrial process. In the case of model or toy steam engines, the heat source can be an electric heating element.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Along with nuclear, geothermal and internal combustion engine waste heat, what sort of energy might supply the heat for a steam engine?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>solar</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>solar</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>solar</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.4</h3>
<p>Where CHP is not used, steam turbines in power stations use surface condensers as a cold sink. The condensers are cooled by water flow from oceans, rivers, lakes, and often by cooling towers which evaporate water to provide cooling energy removal. The resulting condensed hot water output from the condenser is then put back into the boiler via a pump. A dry type cooling tower is similar to an automobile radiator and is used in locations where water is costly. Evaporative (wet) cooling towers use the rejected heat to evaporate water; this water is kept separate from the condensate, which circulates in a closed system and returns to the boiler. Such towers often have visible plumes due to the evaporated water condensing into droplets carried up by the warm air. Evaporative cooling towers need less water flow than "once-through" cooling by river or lake water; a 700 megawatt coal-fired power plant may use about 3600 cubic metres of make-up water every hour for evaporative cooling, but would need about twenty times as much if cooled by river water.[citation needed]</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>About how many cubic meters of make-up water is used by a 700-megawatt coal-fired power plant for evaporative cooling hourly?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>3600</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>3600</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>3600</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.5</h3>
<p>Using boiling water to produce mechanical motion goes back over 2000 years, but early devices were not practical. The Spanish inventor Jerónimo de Ayanz y Beaumont obtained the first patent for a steam engine in 1606. In 1698 Thomas Savery patented a steam pump that used steam in direct contact with the water being pumped. Savery's steam pump used condensing steam to create a vacuum and draw water into a chamber, and then applied pressurized steam to further pump the water. Thomas Newcomen's atmospheric engine was the first commercial true steam engine using a piston, and was used in 1712 for pumping in a mine.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>In what year did Jerónimo de Ayanz y Beaumont receive a steam engine patent?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1606</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1606</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1606</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1606</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.6</h3>
<p>The weight of boilers and condensers generally makes the power-to-weight ratio of a steam plant lower than for internal combustion engines. For mobile applications steam has been largely superseded by internal combustion engines or electric motors. However, most electric power is generated using steam turbine plant, so that indirectly the world's industry is still dependent on steam power. Recent concerns about fuel sources and pollution have incited a renewed interest in steam both as a component of cogeneration processes and as a prime mover. This is becoming known as the Advanced Steam movement.[citation needed]</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What is the power-to-weight ratio of a steam plant compared to that of an internal combustion engine?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>lower</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>lower</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>lower</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>lower</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.7</h3>
<p>The next major step occurred when James Watt developed (1763–1775) an improved version of Newcomen's engine, with a separate condenser. Boulton and Watt's early engines used half as much coal as John Smeaton's improved version of Newcomen's. Newcomen's and Watt's early engines were "atmospheric". They were powered by air pressure pushing a piston into the partial vacuum generated by condensing steam, instead of the pressure of expanding steam. The engine cylinders had to be large because the only usable force acting on them was due to atmospheric pressure.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Compared to Smeaton's improvement on Newcomen's engine, how much coal did Watt's engine use?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>half</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>half as much</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>half as much coal</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>half</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.8</h3>
<p>Steam engines frequently possess two independent mechanisms for ensuring that the pressure in the boiler does not go too high; one may be adjusted by the user, the second is typically designed as an ultimate fail-safe. Such safety valves traditionally used a simple lever to restrain a plug valve in the top of a boiler. One end of the lever carried a weight or spring that restrained the valve against steam pressure. Early valves could be adjusted by engine drivers, leading to many accidents when a driver fastened the valve down to allow greater steam pressure and more power from the engine. The more recent type of safety valve uses an adjustable spring-loaded valve, which is locked such that operators may not tamper with its adjustment unless a seal illegally is broken. This arrangement is considerably safer.[citation needed]</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Along with a desire for more steam pressure, what were early drivers looking to generate when they fastened safety valves down?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>more power</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>more power</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>greater steam pressure and more power</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 3.9</h3>
<p>One of the principal advantages the Rankine cycle holds over others is that during the compression stage relatively little work is required to drive the pump, the working fluid being in its liquid phase at this point. By condensing the fluid, the work required by the pump consumes only 1% to 3% of the turbine power and contributes to a much higher efficiency for a real cycle. The benefit of this is lost somewhat due to the lower heat addition temperature. Gas turbines, for instance, have turbine entry temperatures approaching 1500 °C. Nonetheless, the efficiencies of actual large steam cycles and large modern gas turbines are fairly well matched.[citation needed]</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How much turbine power is consumed by the pump while the work fluid is condensed?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1% to 3%</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1% to 3%</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1% to 3%</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>European_Union_law</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 4.0</h3>
<p>European Union law is a body of treaties and legislation, such as Regulations and Directives, which have direct effect or indirect effect on the laws of European Union member states. The three sources of European Union law are primary law, secondary law and supplementary law. The main sources of primary law are the Treaties establishing the European Union. Secondary sources include regulations and directives which are based on the Treaties. The legislature of the European Union is principally composed of the European Parliament and the Council of the European Union, which under the Treaties may establish secondary law to pursue the objective set out in the Treaties.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What effect does European Union law have on laws of member states?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>direct effect or indirect effect</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>direct effect or indirect effect on the laws of European Union member states</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>direct effect or indirect effect</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>direct effect or indirect effect</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What are the three main sources of European Union law?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>primary law, secondary law and supplementary law</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>primary law, secondary law and supplementary law</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>primary law, secondary law and supplementary law</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>primary law, secondary law and supplementary law</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.1</h3>
<p>European Union law is applied by the courts of member states and the Court of Justice of the European Union. Where the laws of member states provide for lesser rights European Union law can be enforced by the courts of member states. In case of European Union law which should have been transposed into the laws of member states, such as Directives, the European Commission can take proceedings against the member state under the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union. The European Court of Justice is the highest court able to interpret European Union law. Supplementary sources of European Union law include case law by the Court of Justice, international law and general principles of European Union law.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Who can enforce the European Union law when member states provide lesser rights?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>courts of member states</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the courts of member states</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the courts of member states</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the courts of member states</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Under what treaty can the European Commission take action against member states?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union.</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.2</h3>
<p>The primary law of the EU consists mainly of the founding treaties, the "core" treaties being the Treaty on European Union (TEU) and the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union (TFEU). The Treaties contain formal and substantive provisions, which frame policies of the European Union institutions and determine the division of competences between the European Union and its member states. The TEU establishes that European Union law applies to the metropolitan territories of the member states, as well as certain islands and overseas territories, including Madeira, the Canary Islands and the French overseas departments. European Union law also applies in territories where a member state is responsible for external relations, for example Gibraltar and the Åland islands. The TEU allows the European Council to make specific provisions for regions, as for example done for customs matters in Gibraltar and Saint-Pierre-et-Miquelon. The TEU specifically excludes certain regions, for example the Faroe Islands, from the jurisdiction of European Union law. Treaties apply as soon as they enter into force, unless stated otherwise, and are generally concluded for an unlimited period. The TEU provides that commitments entered into by the member states between themselves before the treaty was signed no longer apply.[vague] All EU member states are regarded as subject to the general obligation of the principle of cooperation, as stated in the TEU, whereby member states are obliged not to take measure which could jeopardise the attainment of the TEU objectives. The Court of Justice of the European Union can interpret the Treaties, but it cannot rule on their validity, which is subject to international law. Individuals may rely on primary law in the Court of Justice of the European Union if the Treaty provisions have a direct effect and they are sufficiently clear, precise and unconditional.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What are some examples of territories where a member state is responsible for external relations?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Gibraltar and the Åland islands</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Gibraltar and the Åland islands</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Gibraltar and the Åland islands</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Gibraltar and the Åland islands</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.3</h3>
<p>To make new legislation, TFEU article 294 defines the "ordinary legislative procedure" that applies for most EU acts. The essence is there are three readings, starting with a Commission proposal, where the Parliament must vote by a majority of all MEPs (not just those present) to block or suggest changes, and the Council must vote by qualified majority to approve changes, but by unanimity to block Commission amendment. Where the different institutions cannot agree at any stage, a "Conciliation Committee" is convened, representing MEPs, ministers and the Commission to try and get agreement on a joint text: if this works, it will be sent back to the Parliament and Council to approve by absolute and qualified majority. This means, legislation can be blocked by a majority in Parliament, a minority in the Council, and a majority in the Commission: it is harder to change EU law than stay the same. A different procedure exists for budgets. For "enhanced cooperation" among a sub-set of at least member states, authorisation must be given by the Council. Member state governments should be informed by the Commission at the outset before any proposals start the legislative procedure. The EU as a whole can only act within its power set out in the Treaties. TEU articles 4 and 5 state that powers remain with the member states unless they have been conferred, although there is a debate about the Kompetenz-Kompetenz question: who ultimately has the "competence" to define the EU's "competence". Many member state courts believe they decide, other member state Parliaments believe they decide, while within the EU, the Court of Justice believes it has the final say.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What type of vote must the Parliament have to either block or suggest changes to the Commission's proposals?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a majority</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a Commission proposal</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a Commission proposal</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a Commission proposal</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.4</h3>
<p>While constitutional law concerns the European Union's governance structure, administrative law binds EU institutions and member states to follow the law. Both member states and the Commission have a general legal right or "standing" (locus standi) to bring claims against EU institutions and other member states for breach of the treaties. From the EU's foundation, the Court of Justice also held that the Treaties allowed citizens or corporations to bring claims against EU and member state institutions for violation of the Treaties and Regulations, if they were properly interpreted as creating rights and obligations. However, under Directives, citizens or corporations were said in 1986 to not be allowed to bring claims against other non-state parties. This meant courts of member states were not bound to apply an EU law where a national rule conflicted, even though the member state government could be sued, if it would impose an obligation on another citizen or corporation. These rules on "direct effect" limit the extent to which member state courts are bound to administer EU law. All actions by EU institutions can be subject to judicial review, and judged by standards of proportionality, particularly where general principles of law, or fundamental rights are engaged. The remedy for a claimant where there has been a breach of the law is often monetary damages, but courts can also require specific performance or will grant an injunction, in order to ensure the law is effective as possible.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>During what year were citizens or corporations said to not be able to bring claims against other non state parties?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1986</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1986</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1986</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.5</h3>
<p>While the Treaties and Regulations will have direct effect (if clear, unconditional and immediate), Directives do not generally give citizens (as opposed to the member state) standing to sue other citizens. In theory, this is because TFEU article 288 says Directives are addressed to the member states and usually "leave to the national authorities the choice of form and methods" to implement. In part this reflects that directives often create minimum standards, leaving member states to apply higher standards. For example, the Working Time Directive requires that every worker has at least 4 weeks paid holidays each year, but most member states require more than 28 days in national law. However, on the current position adopted by the Court of Justice, citizens have standing to make claims based on national laws that implement Directives, but not from Directives themselves. Directives do not have so called "horizontal" direct effect (i.e. between non-state parties). This view was instantly controversial, and in the early 1990s three Advocate Generals persuasively argued that Directives should create rights and duties for all citizens. The Court of Justice refused, but there are five large exceptions.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many paid holiday days does the Working Time directive require workers to have each year?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>4 weeks</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>4 weeks paid holidays each year</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>4 weeks paid</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.6</h3>
<p>First, if a Directive's deadline for implementation is not met, the member state cannot enforce conflicting laws, and a citizen may rely on the Directive in such an action (so called "vertical" direct effect). So, in Pubblico Ministero v Ratti because the Italian government had failed to implement a Directive 73/173/EEC on packaging and labelling solvents by the deadline, it was estopped from enforcing a conflicting national law from 1963 against Mr Ratti's solvent and varnish business. A member state could "not rely, as against individuals, on its own failure to perform the obligations which the Directive entails." Second, a citizen or company can invoke a Directive, not just in a dispute with a public authority, but in a dispute with another citizen or company. So, in CIA Security v Signalson and Securitel the Court of Justice held that a business called CIA Security could defend itself from allegations by competitors that it had not complied with a Belgian decree from 1991 about alarm systems, on the basis that it had not been notified to the Commission as a Directive required. Third, if a Directive gives expression to a "general principle" of EU law, it can be invoked between private non-state parties before its deadline for implementation. This follows from Kücükdeveci v Swedex GmbH & Co KG where the German Civil Code §622 stated that the years people worked under the age of 25 would not count towards the increasing statutory notice before dismissal. Ms Kücükdeveci worked for 10 years, from age 18 to 28, for Swedex GmbH & Co KG before her dismissal. She claimed that the law not counting her years under age 25 was unlawful age discrimination under the Employment Equality Framework Directive. The Court of Justice held that the Directive could be relied on by her because equality was also a general principle of EU law. Third, if the defendant is an emanation of the state, even if not central government, it can still be bound by Directives. In Foster v British Gas plc the Court of Justice held that Mrs Foster was entitled to bring a sex discrimination claim against her employer, British Gas plc, which made women retire at age 60 and men at 65, if (1) pursuant to a state measure, (2) it provided a public service, and (3) had special powers. This could also be true if the enterprise is privatised, as it was held with a water company that was responsible for basic water provision.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How long did Ms Kucukdeveci work for Swedex Gmbh & Co KG before she was dismissed?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>10 years</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>10 years</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>10 years</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.7</h3>
<p>Fourth, national courts have a duty to interpret domestic law "as far as possible in the light of the wording and purpose of the directive". Textbooks (though not the Court itself) often called this "indirect effect". In Marleasing SA v La Comercial SA the Court of Justice held that a Spanish Court had to interpret its general Civil Code provisions, on contracts lacking cause or defrauding creditors, to conform with the First Company Law Directive article 11, that required incorporations would only be nullified for a fixed list of reasons. The Court of Justice quickly acknowledged that the duty of interpretation cannot contradict plain words in a national statute. But, fifth, if a member state has failed to implement a Directive, a citizen may not be able to bring claims against other non-state parties, but can sue the member state itself for failure to implement the law. So, in Francovich v Italy, the Italian government had failed to set up an insurance fund for employees to claim unpaid wages if their employers had gone insolvent, as the Insolvency Protection Directive required. Francovich, the former employee of a bankrupt Venetian firm, was therefore allowed to claim 6 million Lira from the Italian government in damages for his loss. The Court of Justice held that if a Directive would confer identifiable rights on individuals, and there is a causal link between a member state's violation of EU and a claimant's loss, damages must be paid. The fact that the incompatible law is an Act of Parliament is no defence.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What does the First Company Law Directive article 11 require?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>incorporations would only be nullified for a fixed list of reasons</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>incorporations would only be nullified for a fixed list of reasons</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>incorporations would only be nullified for a fixed list of reasons</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.8</h3>
<p>The concept of legal certainty is recognised one of the general principles of European Union law by the European Court of Justice since the 1960s. It is an important general principle of international law and public law, which predates European Union law. As a general principle in European Union law it means that the law must be certain, in that it is clear and precise, and its legal implications foreseeable, specially when applied to financial obligations. The adoption of laws which will have legal effect in the European Union must have a proper legal basis. Legislation in member states which implements European Union law must be worded so that it is clearly understandable by those who are subject to the law. In European Union law the general principle of legal certainty prohibits Ex post facto laws, i.e. laws should not take effect before they are published. The doctrine of legitimate expectation, which has its roots in the principles of legal certainty and good faith, is also a central element of the general principle of legal certainty in European Union law. The legitimate expectation doctrine holds that and that "those who act in good faith on the basis of law as it is or seems to be should not be frustrated in their expectations".</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What must the adoption of laws which will have legal effect in the EU have?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a proper legal basis</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a proper legal basis</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a proper legal basis</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.9</h3>
<p>The 2007 Lisbon Treaty explicitly recognised fundamental rights by providing in Article 6(1) that "The Union recognises the rights, freedoms and principles set out in the Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European Union of 7 December 2000, as adopted at Strasbourg on 12 December 2007, which shall have the same legal value as the Treaties." Therefore, the Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European Union has become an integral part of European Union law, codifying the fundamental rights which were previously considered general principles of European Union law. In effect, after the Lisbon Treaty, the Charter and the Convention now co-exist under European Union law, though the former is enforced by the European Court of Justice in relation to European Union measures, and the latter by the European Court of Human Rights in relation to measures by member states.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>After the Lisbon treaty, the Charter and the Convention now co-exist under what?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>European Union law</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>European Union law</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>European Union law</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.10</h3>
<p>While the concept of a "social market economy" was only introduced into EU law in 2007, free movement and trade were central to European development since the Treaty of Rome 1957. According to the standard theory of comparative advantage, two countries can both benefit from trade even if one of them has a less productive economy in all respects. Like in other regional organisations such as the North American Free Trade Association, or the World Trade Organisation, breaking down barriers to trade, and enhancing free movement of goods, services, labour and capital, is meant to reduce consumer prices. It was originally theorised that a free trade area had a tendency to give way to a customs union, which led to a common market, then monetary union, then union of monetary and fiscal policy, political and eventually a full union characteristic of a federal state. In Europe, however, those stages were considerably mixed, and it remains unclear whether the "endgame" should be the same as a state, traditionally understood. In practice free trade, without standards to ensure fair trade, can benefit some people and groups within countries (particularly big business) much more than others, but will burden people who lack bargaining power in an expanding market, particularly workers, consumers, small business, developing industries, and communities. The Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union articles 28 to 37 establish the principle of free movement of goods in the EU, while articles 45 to 66 require free movement of persons, services and capital. These so-called "four freedoms" were thought to be inhibited by physical barriers (e.g. customs), technical barriers (e.g. differing laws on safety, consumer or environmental standards) and fiscal barriers (e.g. different Value Added Tax rates). The tension in the law is that the free movement and trade is not supposed to spill over into a licence for unrestricted commercial profit. The Treaties limit free trade, to prioritise other values such as public health, consumer protection, labour rights, fair competition, and environmental improvement. Increasingly the Court of Justice has taken the view that the specific goals of free trade are underpinned by the general aims of the treaty for improvement of people's well being.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>When was the concept of a social market economy introduced into EU law?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2007</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2007</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2007</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.11</h3>
<p>Often rules apply to all goods neutrally, but may have a greater practical effect on imports than domestic products. For such "indirect" discriminatory (or "indistinctly applicable") measures the Court of Justice has developed more justifications: either those in article 36, or additional "mandatory" or "overriding" requirements such as consumer protection, improving labour standards, protecting the environment, press diversity, fairness in commerce, and more: the categories are not closed. In the most famous case Rewe-Zentral AG v Bundesmonopol für Branntwein, the Court of Justice found that a German law requiring all spirits and liqueurs (not just imported ones) to have a minimum alcohol content of 25 per cent was contrary to TFEU article 34, because it had a greater negative effect on imports. German liqueurs were over 25 per cent alcohol, but Cassis de Dijon, which Rewe-Zentrale AG wished to import from France, only had 15 to 20 per cent alcohol. The Court of Justice rejected the German government's arguments that the measure proportionately protected public health under TFEU article 36, because stronger beverages were available and adequate labelling would be enough for consumers to understand what they bought. This rule primarily applies to requirements about a product's content or packaging. In Walter Rau Lebensmittelwerke v De Smedt PVBA the Court of Justice found that a Belgian law requiring all margarine to be in cube shaped packages infringed article 34, and was not justified by the pursuit of consumer protection. The argument that Belgians would believe it was butter if it was not cube shaped was disproportionate: it would "considerably exceed the requirements of the object in view" and labelling would protect consumers "just as effectively". In a 2003 case, Commission v Italy Italian law required that cocoa products that included other vegetable fats could not be labelled as "chocolate". It had to be "chocolate substitute". All Italian chocolate was made from cocoa butter alone, but British, Danish and Irish manufacturers used other vegetable fats. They claimed the law infringed article 34. The Court of Justice held that a low content of vegetable fat did not justify a "chocolate substitute" label. This was derogatory in the consumers' eyes. A ‘neutral and objective statement’ was enough to protect consumers. If member states place considerable obstacles on the use of a product, this can also infringe article 34. So, in a 2009 case, Commission v Italy, the Court of Justice held that an Italian law prohibiting motorcycles or mopeds pulling trailers infringed article 34. Again, the law applied neutrally to everyone, but disproportionately affected importers, because Italian companies did not make trailers. This was not a product requirement, but the Court reasoned that the prohibition would deter people from buying it: it would have "a considerable influence on the behaviour of consumers" that "affects the access of that product to the market". It would require justification under article 36, or as a mandatory requirement.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td> In the 2009 Commission v Italy, case, the Court of Justice held that an Italian low prohibiting what infringed article 34?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>motorcycles or mopeds pulling trailers</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>motorcycles or mopeds pulling trailers</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>motorcycles or mopeds pulling trailers</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.12</h3>
<p>The Free Movement of Workers Regulation articles 1 to 7 set out the main provisions on equal treatment of workers. First, articles 1 to 4 generally require that workers can take up employment, conclude contracts, and not suffer discrimination compared to nationals of the member state. In a famous case, the Belgian Football Association v Bosman, a Belgian footballer named Jean-Marc Bosman claimed that he should be able to transfer from R.F.C. de Liège to USL Dunkerque when his contract finished, regardless of whether Dunkerque could afford to pay Liège the habitual transfer fees. The Court of Justice held "the transfer rules constitute[d] an obstacle to free movement" and were unlawful unless they could be justified in the public interest, but this was unlikely. In Groener v Minister for Education the Court of Justice accepted that a requirement to speak Gaelic to teach in a Dublin design college could be justified as part of the public policy of promoting the Irish language, but only if the measure was not disproportionate. By contrast in Angonese v Cassa di Risparmio di Bolzano SpA a bank in Bolzano, Italy, was not allowed to require Mr Angonese to have a bilingual certificate that could only be obtained in Bolzano. The Court of Justice, giving "horizontal" direct effect to TFEU article 45, reasoned that people from other countries would have little chance of acquiring the certificate, and because it was "impossible to submit proof of the required linguistic knowledge by any other means", the measure was disproportionate. Second, article 7(2) requires equal treatment in respect of tax. In Finanzamt Köln Altstadt v Schumacker the Court of Justice held that it contravened TFEU art 45 to deny tax benefits (e.g. for married couples, and social insurance expense deductions) to a man who worked in Germany, but was resident in Belgium when other German residents got the benefits. By contrast in Weigel v Finanzlandesdirektion für Vorarlberg the Court of Justice rejected Mr Weigel's claim that a re-registration charge upon bringing his car to Austria violated his right to free movement. Although the tax was "likely to have a negative bearing on the decision of migrant workers to exercise their right to freedom of movement", because the charge applied equally to Austrians, in absence of EU legislation on the matter it had to be regarded as justified. Third, people must receive equal treatment regarding "social advantages", although the Court has approved residential qualifying periods. In Hendrix v Employee Insurance Institute the Court of Justice held that a Dutch national was not entitled to continue receiving incapacity benefits when he moved to Belgium, because the benefit was "closely linked to the socio-economic situation" of the Netherlands. Conversely, in Geven v Land Nordrhein-Westfalen the Court of Justice held that a Dutch woman living in the Netherlands, but working between 3 and 14 hours a week in Germany, did not have a right to receive German child benefits, even though the wife of a man who worked full-time in Germany but was resident in Austria could. The general justifications for limiting free movement in TFEU article 45(3) are "public policy, public security or public health", and there is also a general exception in article 45(4) for "employment in the public service".</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What language did the Court of Justice accept to be required to teach in a Dublin college in Groner v Minister for Education?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Gaelic</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Gaelic</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Gaelic</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.13</h3>
<p>As well as creating rights for "workers" who generally lack bargaining power in the market, the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union also protects the "freedom of establishment" in article 49, and "freedom to provide services" in article 56. In Gebhard v Consiglio dell’Ordine degli Avvocati e Procuratori di Milano the Court of Justice held that to be "established" means to participate in economic life "on a stable and continuous basis", while providing "services" meant pursuing activity more "on a temporary basis". This meant that a lawyer from Stuttgart, who had set up chambers in Milan and was censured by the Milan Bar Council for not having registered, was entitled to bring a claim under for establishment freedom, rather than service freedom. However, the requirements to be registered in Milan before being able to practice would be allowed if they were non-discriminatory, "justified by imperative requirements in the general interest" and proportionately applied. All people or entities that engage in economic activity, particularly the self-employed, or "undertakings" such as companies or firms, have a right to set up an enterprise without unjustified restrictions. The Court of Justice has held that both a member state government and a private party can hinder freedom of establishment, so article 49 has both "vertical" and "horizontal" direct effect. In Reyners v Belgium the Court of Justice held that a refusal to admit a lawyer to the Belgian bar because he lacked Belgian nationality was unjustified. TFEU article 49 says states are exempt from infringing others' freedom of establishment when they exercise "official authority", but this did an advocate's work (as opposed to a court's) was not official. By contrast in Commission v Italy the Court of Justice held that a requirement for lawyers in Italy to comply with maximum tariffs unless there was an agreement with a client was not a restriction. The Grand Chamber of the Court of Justice held the Commission had not proven that this had any object or effect of limiting practitioners from entering the market. Therefore, there was no prima facie infringement freedom of establishment that needed to be justified.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>In Gebhard v Consiglio...Milano, the requirements to be registered in Milan before being able to practice law would be allowed under what conditions?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>if they were non-discriminatory</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>if they were non-discriminatory, "justified by imperative requirements in the general interest" and proportionately applied</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>participate in economic life "on a stable and continuous basis"</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.14</h3>
<p>The "freedom to provide services" under TFEU article 56 applies to people who give services "for remuneration", especially commercial or professional activity. For example, in Van Binsbergen v Bestuur van de Bedrijfvereniging voor de Metaalnijverheid a Dutch lawyer moved to Belgium while advising a client in a social security case, and was told he could not continue because Dutch law said only people established in the Netherlands could give legal advice. The Court of Justice held that the freedom to provide services applied, it was directly effective, and the rule was probably unjustified: having an address in the member state would be enough to pursue the legitimate aim of good administration of justice. The Court of Justice has held that secondary education falls outside the scope of article 56, because usually the state funds it, though higher education does not. Health care generally counts as a service. In Geraets-Smits v Stichting Ziekenfonds Mrs Geraets-Smits claimed she should be reimbursed by Dutch social insurance for costs of receiving treatment in Germany. The Dutch health authorities regarded the treatment unnecessary, so she argued this restricted the freedom (of the German health clinic) to provide services. Several governments submitted that hospital services should not be regarded as economic, and should not fall within article 56. But the Court of Justice held health was a "service" even though the government (rather than the service recipient) paid for the service. National authorities could be justified in refusing to reimburse patients for medical services abroad if the health care received at home was without undue delay, and it followed "international medical science" on which treatments counted as normal and necessary. The Court requires that the individual circumstances of a patient justify waiting lists, and this is also true in the context of the UK's National Health Service. Aside from public services, another sensitive field of services are those classified as illegal. Josemans v Burgemeester van Maastricht held that the Netherlands' regulation of cannabis consumption, including the prohibitions by some municipalities on tourists (but not Dutch nationals) going to coffee shops, fell outside article 56 altogether. The Court of Justice reasoned that narcotic drugs were controlled in all member states, and so this differed from other cases where prostitution or other quasi-legal activity was subject to restriction. If an activity does fall within article 56, a restriction can be justified under article 52 or overriding requirements developed by the Court of Justice. In Alpine Investments BV v Minister van Financiën a business that sold commodities futures (with Merrill Lynch and another banking firms) attempted to challenge a Dutch law that prohibiting cold calling customers. The Court of Justice held the Dutch prohibition pursued a legitimate aim to prevent "undesirable developments in securities trading" including protecting the consumer from aggressive sales tactics, thus maintaining confidence in the Dutch markets. In Omega Spielhallen GmbH v Bonn a "laserdrome" business was banned by the Bonn council. It bought fake laser gun services from a UK firm called Pulsar Ltd, but residents had protested against "playing at killing" entertainment. The Court of Justice held that the German constitutional value of human dignity, which underpinned the ban, did count as a justified restriction on freedom to provide services. In Liga Portuguesa de Futebol v Santa Casa da Misericórdia de Lisboa the Court of Justice also held that the state monopoly on gambling, and a penalty for a Gibraltar firm that had sold internet gambling services, was justified to prevent fraud and gambling where people's views were highly divergent. The ban was proportionate as this was an appropriate and necessary way to tackle the serious problems of fraud that arise over the internet. In the Services Directive a group of justifications were codified in article 16 that the case law has developed.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Why was the Dutch lawyer who moved to Belgium while advising a client in a social society case told he couldn't continue?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>because Dutch law said only people established in the Netherlands could give legal advice</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Dutch law said only people established in the Netherlands could give legal advice</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Dutch law said only people established in the Netherlands could give legal advice</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What did the Court of Justice reason were controlled in all member states in Josemans v Burgemeester van Maastricht?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>narcotic drugs</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>narcotic drugs</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>narcotic drugs</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 4.15</h3>
<p>In regard to companies, the Court of Justice held in R (Daily Mail and General Trust plc) v HM Treasury that member states could restrict a company moving its seat of business, without infringing TFEU article 49. This meant the Daily Mail newspaper's parent company could not evade tax by shifting its residence to the Netherlands without first settling its tax bills in the UK. The UK did not need to justify its action, as rules on company seats were not yet harmonised. By contrast, in Centros Ltd v Erhversus-og Selkabssyrelsen the Court of Justice found that a UK limited company operating in Denmark could not be required to comply with Denmark's minimum share capital rules. UK law only required £1 of capital to start a company, while Denmark's legislature took the view companies should only be started up if they had 200,000 Danish krone (around €27,000) to protect creditors if the company failed and went insolvent. The Court of Justice held that Denmark's minimum capital law infringed Centros Ltd's freedom of establishment and could not be justified, because a company in the UK could admittedly provide services in Denmark without being established there, and there were less restrictive means of achieving the aim of creditor protection. This approach was criticised as potentially opening the EU to unjustified regulatory competition, and a race to the bottom in standards, like in the US where the state Delaware attracts most companies and is often argued to have the worst standards of accountability of boards, and low corporate taxes as a result. Similarly in Überseering BV v Nordic Construction GmbH the Court of Justice held that a German court could not deny a Dutch building company the right to enforce a contract in Germany on the basis that it was not validly incorporated in Germany. Although restrictions on freedom of establishment could be justified by creditor protection, labour rights to participate in work, or the public interest in collecting taxes, denial of capacity went too far: it was an "outright negation" of the right of establishment. However, in Cartesio Oktató és Szolgáltató bt the Court of Justice affirmed again that because corporations are created by law, they are in principle subject to any rules for formation that a state of incorporation wishes to impose. This meant that the Hungarian authorities could prevent a company from shifting its central administration to Italy while it still operated and was incorporated in Hungary. Thus, the court draws a distinction between the right of establishment for foreign companies (where restrictions must be justified), and the right of the state to determine conditions for companies incorporated in its territory, although it is not entirely clear why.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Which newspaper's parent company could not evade tax by shifting its residence to the Netherlands?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the Daily Mail</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the Daily Mail</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Daily Mail</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Amazon_rainforest</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 5.0</h3>
<p>There is evidence that there have been significant changes in Amazon rainforest vegetation over the last 21,000 years through the Last Glacial Maximum (LGM) and subsequent deglaciation. Analyses of sediment deposits from Amazon basin paleolakes and from the Amazon Fan indicate that rainfall in the basin during the LGM was lower than for the present, and this was almost certainly associated with reduced moist tropical vegetation cover in the basin. There is debate, however, over how extensive this reduction was. Some scientists argue that the rainforest was reduced to small, isolated refugia separated by open forest and grassland; other scientists argue that the rainforest remained largely intact but extended less far to the north, south, and east than is seen today. This debate has proved difficult to resolve because the practical limitations of working in the rainforest mean that data sampling is biased away from the center of the Amazon basin, and both explanations are reasonably well supported by the available data.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>There have been major changes in Amazon rainforest vegetation over the last how many years?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>21,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>21,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>21,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Many changes in the vegetation of the amazon rainforest took place since the Last Glacial Maximum, which was how many years ago?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>21,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>21,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>21,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Scientists disagree with how the Amazon rainforest changed over time with some arguing that it was reduced to isolated refugia seperated by what?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>open forest and grassland</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>open forest and grassland</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>open forest and grassland</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 5.1</h3>
<p>For a long time, it was thought that the Amazon rainforest was only ever sparsely populated, as it was impossible to sustain a large population through agriculture given the poor soil. Archeologist Betty Meggers was a prominent proponent of this idea, as described in her book Amazonia: Man and Culture in a Counterfeit Paradise. She claimed that a population density of 0.2 inhabitants per square kilometre (0.52/sq mi) is the maximum that can be sustained in the rainforest through hunting, with agriculture needed to host a larger population. However, recent anthropological findings have suggested that the region was actually densely populated. Some 5 million people may have lived in the Amazon region in AD 1500, divided between dense coastal settlements, such as that at Marajó, and inland dwellers. By 1900 the population had fallen to 1 million and by the early 1980s it was less than 200,000.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many people may have lived in the Amazon region during AD 1500?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>5 million</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>5 million</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>5 million</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>In 1500 AD how many people were believed to have lived in the Amazon region?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>5 million people</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>5 million</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Some 5 million</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 5.2</h3>
<p>The biodiversity of plant species is the highest on Earth with one 2001 study finding a quarter square kilometer (62 acres) of Ecuadorian rainforest supports more than 1,100 tree species. A study in 1999 found one square kilometer (247 acres) of Amazon rainforest can contain about 90,790 tonnes of living plants. The average plant biomass is estimated at 356 ± 47 tonnes per hectare. To date, an estimated 438,000 species of plants of economic and social interest have been registered in the region with many more remaining to be discovered or catalogued. The total number of tree species in the region is estimated at 16,000.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many tree species were found in one square kilometer of Ecuadorian rainforest in 2001?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1,100</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>more than 1,100</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>more than 1,100</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1,100</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many tons of live plants were found to live in one square kilometer of the Amazon rainforest in 1999?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>90,790 tonnes</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>about 90,790</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>about 90,790</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>90,790 tonnes</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 5.3</h3>
<p>Environmentalists are concerned about loss of biodiversity that will result from destruction of the forest, and also about the release of the carbon contained within the vegetation, which could accelerate global warming. Amazonian evergreen forests account for about 10% of the world's terrestrial primary productivity and 10% of the carbon stores in ecosystems—of the order of 1.1 × 1011 metric tonnes of carbon. Amazonian forests are estimated to have accumulated 0.62 ± 0.37 tons of carbon per hectare per year between 1975 and 1996.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many metric tons of carbon are believed to be stored in the Amazon forest?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1.1 × 1011 metric tonnes</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1.1 × 1011</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1.1 × 1011</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Ctenophora</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 6.0</h3>
<p>Most species are hermaphrodites—a single animal can produce both eggs and sperm, meaning it can fertilize its own egg, not needing a mate. Some are simultaneous hermaphrodites, which can produce both eggs and sperm at the same time. Others are sequential hermaphrodites, in which the eggs and sperm mature at different times. Fertilization is generally external, although platyctenids' eggs are fertilized inside their parents' bodies and kept there until they hatch. The young are generally planktonic and in most species look like miniature cydippids, gradually changing into their adult shapes as they grow. The exceptions are the beroids, whose young are miniature beroids with large mouths and no tentacles, and the platyctenids, whose young live as cydippid-like plankton until they reach near-adult size, but then sink to the bottom and rapidly metamorphose into the adult form. In at least some species, juveniles are capable of reproduction before reaching the adult size and shape. The combination of hermaphroditism and early reproduction enables small populations to grow at an explosive rate.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Which species eggs are fertilized and kept inside the parents body until hatched?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>platyctenids</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>platyctenids</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>platyctenids</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Which group keep the eggs are fertilized and kept inside the parent's body until they hatch?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>platyctenids</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>platyctenids</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>platyctenids</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 6.1</h3>
<p>When some species, including Bathyctena chuni, Euplokamis stationis and Eurhamphaea vexilligera, are disturbed, they produce secretions (ink) that luminesce at much the same wavelengths as their bodies. Juveniles will luminesce more brightly in relation to their body size than adults, whose luminescence is diffused over their bodies. Detailed statistical investigation has not suggested the function of ctenophores' bioluminescence nor produced any correlation between its exact color and any aspect of the animals' environments, such as depth or whether they live in coastal or mid-ocean waters.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>When do bathyctena chuni, euplokamis stationis and eurhamphaea vexilligera excrete secretions?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>are disturbed,</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>disturbed</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>are disturbed</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Fresno,_California</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 7.0</h3>
<p>This vibrant and culturally diverse area of retail businesses and residences experienced a renewal after a significant decline in the late 1960s and 1970s.[citation needed] After decades of neglect and suburban flight, the neighborhood revival followed the re-opening of the Tower Theatre in the late 1970s, which at that time showed second and third run movies, along with classic films. Roger Rocka's Dinner Theater & Good Company Players also opened nearby in 1978,[citation needed] at Olive and Wishon Avenues. Fresno native Audra McDonald performed in the leading roles of Evita and The Wiz at the theater while she was a high school student. McDonald subsequently became a leading performer on Broadway in New York City and a Tony award winning actress. Also in the Tower District is Good Company Players' 2nd Space Theatre.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>In what year did Roger Rocka's Dinner Theater & Good Company Players open?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1978</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1978</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1978</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Which two leading roles did Audra McDonald perform when she was in high school?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Evita and The Wiz</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Evita and The Wiz</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Evita and The Wiz</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 7.1</h3>
<p>In the north eastern part of Fresno, Woodward Park was founded by the late Ralph Woodward, a long-time Fresno resident. He bequeathed a major portion of his estate in 1968 to provide a regional park and bird sanctuary in Northeast Fresno. The park lies on the South bank of the San Joaquin River between Highway 41 and Friant Road. The initial 235 acres (0.95 km2), combined with additional acres acquired later by the City, brings the park to a sizable 300 acres (1.2 km2). Now packed with amenities, Woodward Park is the only Regional Park of its size in the Central Valley. The Southeast corner of the park harbors numerous bird species offering bird enthusiasts an excellent opportunity for viewing. The park has a multi-use amphitheatre that seats up to 2,500 people, authentic Japanese Garden, fenced dog park, two-mile (3 km) equestrian trail, exercise par course, three children's playgrounds, a lake, 3 small ponds, 7 picnic areas and five miles (8 km) of multipurpose trails that are part of the San Joaquin River Parkway's Lewis S. Eaton Trail. When complete, the Lewis S. Eaton trail system will cover 22 miles (35 km) between Highway 99 and Friant Dam. The park's numerous picnic tables make for a great picnic destination and a convenient escape from city life. The park's amphetheatre was renovated in 2010, and has hosted performances by acts such as Deftones, Tech N9ne, and Sevendust as well as numerous others. The park is open April through October, 6am to 10pm and November through March, 6am to 7pm. Woodward Park is home to the annual CIF(California Interscholastic Federation) State Championship cross country meet, which takes place in late November. It is also the home of the Woodward Shakespeare Festival which began performances in the park in 2005.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How many miles, once completed, will the the Lewis S. Eaton trail cover?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>22 miles</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>22</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>22</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 7.2</h3>
<p>Formed in 1946, Sierra Sky Park Airport is a residential airport community born of a unique agreement in transportation law to allow personal aircraft and automobiles to share certain roads. Sierra Sky Park was the first aviation community to be built[citation needed] and there are now numerous such communities across the United States and around the world. Developer William Smilie created the nation's first planned aviation community. Still in operation today, the public use airport provides a unique neighborhood that spawned interest and similar communities nationwide.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Are there any other aviation communities such as Sierra Sky Park in the United States?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>there are now numerous such communities across the United States</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>numerous</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Geology</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 8.0</h3>
<p>Seismologists can use the arrival times of seismic waves in reverse to image the interior of the Earth. Early advances in this field showed the existence of a liquid outer core (where shear waves were not able to propagate) and a dense solid inner core. These advances led to the development of a layered model of the Earth, with a crust and lithosphere on top, the mantle below (separated within itself by seismic discontinuities at 410 and 660 kilometers), and the outer core and inner core below that. More recently, seismologists have been able to create detailed images of wave speeds inside the earth in the same way a doctor images a body in a CT scan. These images have led to a much more detailed view of the interior of the Earth, and have replaced the simplified layered model with a much more dynamic model.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Recently a more detailed model of the Earth was developed. Seismologists were able to create this using images of what from the interior of the Earth? </td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>wave speeds</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>wave speeds</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>wave speeds</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 8.1</h3>
<p>At the beginning of the 20th century, important advancement in geological science was facilitated by the ability to obtain accurate absolute dates to geologic events using radioactive isotopes and other methods. This changed the understanding of geologic time. Previously, geologists could only use fossils and stratigraphic correlation to date sections of rock relative to one another. With isotopic dates it became possible to assign absolute ages to rock units, and these absolute dates could be applied to fossil sequences in which there was datable material, converting the old relative ages into new absolute ages.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Previous to isotopic dating sections of rocks had to be dated using fossils and stratigraphic correlation relative to what? </td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>to one another</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>one another</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>one another</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 8.2</h3>
<p>When rock units are placed under horizontal compression, they shorten and become thicker. Because rock units, other than muds, do not significantly change in volume, this is accomplished in two primary ways: through faulting and folding. In the shallow crust, where brittle deformation can occur, thrust faults form, which cause deeper rock to move on top of shallower rock. Because deeper rock is often older, as noted by the principle of superposition, this can result in older rocks moving on top of younger ones. Movement along faults can result in folding, either because the faults are not planar or because rock layers are dragged along, forming drag folds as slip occurs along the fault. Deeper in the Earth, rocks behave plastically, and fold instead of faulting. These folds can either be those where the material in the center of the fold buckles upwards, creating "antiforms", or where it buckles downwards, creating "synforms". If the tops of the rock units within the folds remain pointing upwards, they are called anticlines and synclines, respectively. If some of the units in the fold are facing downward, the structure is called an overturned anticline or syncline, and if all of the rock units are overturned or the correct up-direction is unknown, they are simply called by the most general terms, antiforms and synforms.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>If the tops of the rock units within the folds remain pointing upwards, they are called what? </td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>anticlines and synclines</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>overturned anticline</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>anticlines and synclines</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 8.3</h3>
<p>Extension causes the rock units as a whole to become longer and thinner. This is primarily accomplished through normal faulting and through the ductile stretching and thinning. Normal faults drop rock units that are higher below those that are lower. This typically results in younger units being placed below older units. Stretching of units can result in their thinning; in fact, there is a location within the Maria Fold and Thrust Belt in which the entire sedimentary sequence of the Grand Canyon can be seen over a length of less than a meter. Rocks at the depth to be ductilely stretched are often also metamorphosed. These stretched rocks can also pinch into lenses, known as boudins, after the French word for "sausage", because of their visual similarity.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Rocks that are a depth where they are ductilely stretched are also often what?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>metamorphosed</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>metamorphosed</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>metamorphosed</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 8.4</h3>
<p>Among the most well-known experiments in structural geology are those involving orogenic wedges, which are zones in which mountains are built along convergent tectonic plate boundaries. In the analog versions of these experiments, horizontal layers of sand are pulled along a lower surface into a back stop, which results in realistic-looking patterns of faulting and the growth of a critically tapered (all angles remain the same) orogenic wedge. Numerical models work in the same way as these analog models, though they are often more sophisticated and can include patterns of erosion and uplift in the mountain belt. This helps to show the relationship between erosion and the shape of the mountain range. These studies can also give useful information about pathways for metamorphism through pressure, temperature, space, and time.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Horizontal layers of what are pulled along a surface into a back stop in analog versions of orogenic wedge experiments?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>sand</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>sand</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>sand</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 8.5</h3>
<p>In the laboratory, stratigraphers analyze samples of stratigraphic sections that can be returned from the field, such as those from drill cores. Stratigraphers also analyze data from geophysical surveys that show the locations of stratigraphic units in the subsurface. Geophysical data and well logs can be combined to produce a better view of the subsurface, and stratigraphers often use computer programs to do this in three dimensions. Stratigraphers can then use these data to reconstruct ancient processes occurring on the surface of the Earth, interpret past environments, and locate areas for water, coal, and hydrocarbon extraction.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What can be combined with geophysical data to produce a better view of the subsurface?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>well logs</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>well logs</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>well logs</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Pharmacy</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 9.0</h3>
<p>In the U.S. federal health care system (including the VA, the Indian Health Service, and NIH) ambulatory care pharmacists are given full independent prescribing authority. In some states such North Carolina and New Mexico these pharmacist clinicians are given collaborative prescriptive and diagnostic authority. In 2011 the board of Pharmaceutical Specialties approved ambulatory care pharmacy practice as a separate board certification. The official designation for pharmacists who pass the ambulatory care pharmacy specialty certification exam will be Board Certified Ambulatory Care Pharmacist and these pharmacists will carry the initials BCACP.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What type of authority are ambulatory care pharmacists given in the U.S. federal health care system?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>full independent prescribing authority</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>full independent prescribing authority</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>full independent prescribing authority</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>In what states are pharmacist clinicians given prescriptive and diagnostic authority?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>North Carolina and New Mexico</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>North Carolina and New Mexico</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>North Carolina and New Mexico</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 9.1</h3>
<p>In some rural areas in the United Kingdom, there are dispensing physicians who are allowed to both prescribe and dispense prescription-only medicines to their patients from within their practices. The law requires that the GP practice be located in a designated rural area and that there is also a specified, minimum distance (currently 1.6 kilometres) between a patient's home and the nearest retail pharmacy. This law also exists in Austria for general physicians if the nearest pharmacy is more than 4 kilometers away, or where none is registered in the city.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What is the minimum distance between a patient's home and the nearest pharmacy that allows a physician to give out medication?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1.6 kilometres</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1.6 kilometres</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>1.6 kilometres</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Civil_disobedience</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 10.0</h3>
<p>Civil disobedients have chosen a variety of different illegal acts. Bedau writes, "There is a whole class of acts, undertaken in the name of civil disobedience, which, even if they were widely practiced, would in themselves constitute hardly more than a nuisance (e.g. trespassing at a nuclear-missile installation)...Such acts are often just a harassment and, at least to the bystander, somewhat inane...The remoteness of the connection between the disobedient act and the objectionable law lays such acts open to the charge of ineffectiveness and absurdity." Bedau also notes, though, that the very harmlessness of such entirely symbolic illegal protests toward public policy goals may serve a propaganda purpose. Some civil disobedients, such as the proprietors of illegal medical cannabis dispensaries and Voice in the Wilderness, which brought medicine to Iraq without the permission of the U.S. Government, directly achieve a desired social goal (such as the provision of medication to the sick) while openly breaking the law. Julia Butterfly Hill lived in Luna, a 180-foot (55 m)-tall, 600-year-old California Redwood tree for 738 days, successfully preventing it from being cut down.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Bedau notes that illegal protests towards public policy may serve as what purpose?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>propaganda</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>propaganda</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>propaganda</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>propaganda</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>just a harassment</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Construction</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 11.0</h3>
<p>Construction is the process of constructing a building or infrastructure. Construction differs from manufacturing in that manufacturing typically involves mass production of similar items without a designated purchaser, while construction typically takes place on location for a known client. Construction as an industry comprises six to nine percent of the gross domestic product of developed countries. Construction starts with planning,[citation needed] design, and financing and continues until the project is built and ready for use.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What typically involves mass production of similar items without a designated purchaser?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>manufacturing</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>manufacturing</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>manufacturing</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 11.1</h3>
<p>Engineering News-Record (ENR) is a trade magazine for the construction industry. Each year, ENR compiles and reports on data about the size of design and construction companies. They publish a list of the largest companies in the United States (Top-40) and also a list the largest global firms (Top-250, by amount of work they are doing outside their home country). In 2014, ENR compiled the data in nine market segments. It was divided as transportation, petroleum, buildings, power, industrial, water, manufacturing, sewer/waste, telecom, hazardous waste plus a tenth category for other projects. In their reporting on the Top 400, they used data on transportation, sewer, hazardous waste and water to rank firms as heavy contractors.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>ENR used data on what to rank Top 400 firms as heavy contractors?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>transportation, sewer, hazardous waste and water</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>data on transportation, sewer, hazardous waste and water</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>transportation, sewer, hazardous waste and water</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 11.2</h3>
<p>New techniques of building construction are being researched, made possible by advances in 3D printing technology. In a form of additive building construction, similar to the additive manufacturing techniques for manufactured parts, building printing is making it possible to flexibly construct small commercial buildings and private habitations in around 20 hours, with built-in plumbing and electrical facilities, in one continuous build, using large 3D printers. Working versions of 3D-printing building technology are already printing 2 metres (6 ft 7 in) of building material per hour as of January 2013[update], with the next-generation printers capable of 3.5 metres (11 ft) per hour, sufficient to complete a building in a week. Dutch architect Janjaap Ruijssenaars's performative architecture 3D-printed building is scheduled to be built in 2014.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>New techniques of building construction are being researched, made possible by advances in what?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>3D printing technology</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>3D printing technology</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>advances in 3D printing technology</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Building printing is making it possible to flexibly construct small commercial buildings and private habitations in what amount of time?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>around 20 hours</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>around 20 hours</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>20 hours</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Working versions of 3D-printing building technology are already printing how much building material per hour?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2 metres (6 ft 7 in)</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2 metres (6 ft 7 in)</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>2 metres (6 ft 7 in)</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 11.3</h3>
<p>The modern trend in design is toward integration of previously separated specialties, especially among large firms. In the past, architects, interior designers, engineers, developers, construction managers, and general contractors were more likely to be entirely separate companies, even in the larger firms. Presently, a firm that is nominally an "architecture" or "construction management" firm may have experts from all related fields as employees, or to have an associated company that provides each necessary skill. Thus, each such firm may offer itself as "one-stop shopping" for a construction project, from beginning to end. This is designated as a "design build" contract where the contractor is given a performance specification and must undertake the project from design to construction, while adhering to the performance specifications.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Even in large firms, architects, interior designers, engineers, developers, construction managers, and general contractors were more likely to be what?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>entirely separate companies</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>entirely separate companies</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>entirely separate companies</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 11.4</h3>
<p>Several project structures can assist the owner in this integration, including design-build, partnering and construction management. In general, each of these project structures allows the owner to integrate the services of architects, interior designers, engineers and constructors throughout design and construction. In response, many companies are growing beyond traditional offerings of design or construction services alone and are placing more emphasis on establishing relationships with other necessary participants through the design-build process.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>These project structures allow the owner to integrate the services of who throughout the design and construction?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>architects, interior designers, engineers and constructors</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>architects, interior designers, engineers and constructors</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>architects, interior designers, engineers and constructors</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 11.5</h3>
<p>Mortgage bankers, accountants, and cost engineers are likely participants in creating an overall plan for the financial management of the building construction project. The presence of the mortgage banker is highly likely, even in relatively small projects since the owner's equity in the property is the most obvious source of funding for a building project. Accountants act to study the expected monetary flow over the life of the project and to monitor the payouts throughout the process. Cost engineers and estimators apply expertise to relate the work and materials involved to a proper valuation. Cost overruns with government projects have occurred when the contractor identified change orders or project changes that increased costs, which are not subject to competition from other firms as they have already been eliminated from consideration after the initial bid.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Who studies the expected monetary flow over the life of the project and to monitor the payouts throughout the process?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Accountants</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Accountants</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Accountants</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Cost overruns with government projects have occurred when the contractor did what?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>identified change orders or project changes that increased costs</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>identified change orders or project changes that increased costs</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>contractor identified change orders or project changes that increased costs</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 11.6</h3>
<p>The project must adhere to zoning and building code requirements. Constructing a project that fails to adhere to codes does not benefit the owner. Some legal requirements come from malum in se considerations, or the desire to prevent things that are indisputably bad – bridge collapses or explosions. Other legal requirements come from malum prohibitum considerations, or things that are a matter of custom or expectation, such as isolating businesses to a business district and residences to a residential district. An attorney may seek changes or exemptions in the law that governs the land where the building will be built, either by arguing that a rule is inapplicable (the bridge design will not cause a collapse), or that the custom is no longer needed (acceptance of live-work spaces has grown in the community).</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Constructing a project that fails to adhere to codes does not benefit whom?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the owner</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>owner</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the owner</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Who may seek changes or exemptions in the law that governs the land where the building will be built?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>An attorney</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>attorney</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>An attorney</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Private_school</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 12.0</h3>
<p>The secondary level includes schools offering years 7 through 12 (year twelve is known as lower sixth) and year 13 (upper sixth). This category includes university-preparatory schools or "prep schools", boarding schools and day schools. Tuition at private secondary schools varies from school to school and depends on many factors, including the location of the school, the willingness of parents to pay, peer tuitions and the school's financial endowment. High tuition, schools claim, is used to pay higher salaries for the best teachers and also used to provide enriched learning environments, including a low student to teacher ratio, small class sizes and services, such as libraries, science laboratories and computers. Some private schools are boarding schools and many military academies are privately owned or operated as well.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Along with location, endowment and the willingness of parents to pay, what factor influences private school tuition?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>peer tuitions</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>peer tuitions</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>peer tuitions and the school's financial endowment</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 12.1</h3>
<p>In Ireland, private schools (Irish: scoil phríobháideach) are unusual because a certain number of teacher's salaries are paid by the State. If the school wishes to employ extra teachers they are paid for with school fees, which tend to be relatively low in Ireland compared to the rest of the world. There is, however, a limited element of state assessment of private schools, because of the requirement that the state ensure that children receive a certain minimum education; Irish private schools must still work towards the Junior Certificate and the Leaving Certificate, for example. Many private schools in Ireland also double as boarding schools. The average fee is around €5,000 annually for most schools, but some of these schools also provide boarding and the fees may then rise up to €25,000 per year. The fee-paying schools are usually run by a religious order, i.e., the Society of Jesus or Congregation of Christian Brothers, etc.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Along with the Congregation of Christian Brothers, what is a notable religious group that runs fee-paying schools in Ireland?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Society of Jesus</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the Society of Jesus</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Society of Jesus</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 12.2</h3>
<p>As of April 2014, there are 88 private schools in New Zealand, catering for around 28,000 students or 3.7% of the entire student population. Private school numbers have been in decline since the mid-1970s as a result of many private schools opting to become state-integrated schools, mostly due of financial difficulties stemming from changes in student numbers and/or the economy. State-integrated schools keep their private school special character and receives state funds in return for having to operate like a state school, e.g. they must teach the state curriculum, they must employ registered teachers, and they can't charge tuition fees (they can charge "attendance dues" for the upkeep on the still-private school land and buildings). The largest decline in private school numbers occurred between 1979 and 1984, when the nation's then-private Catholic school system integrated. As a result, private schools in New Zealand are now largely restricted to the largest cities (Auckland, Hamilton, Wellington and Christchurch) and niche markets.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>In April 2014, how many New Zealand students attended private schools?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>28,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>28,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>28,000</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What religion's schools were integrated into New Zealand public schools between 1979 and 1984?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Catholic</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Catholic</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Catholic</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What city, along with Hamilton, Wellington and Christchurch, is one of the largest in New Zealand?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Auckland</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Auckland</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Auckland</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Harvard_University</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 13.0</h3>
<p>During the divestment from South Africa movement in the late 1980s, student activists erected a symbolic "shantytown" on Harvard Yard and blockaded a speech given by South African Vice Consul Duke Kent-Brown. The Harvard Management Company repeatedly refused to divest, stating that "operating expenses must not be subject to financially unrealistic strictures or carping by the unsophisticated or by special interest groups." However, the university did eventually reduce its South African holdings by $230 million (out of $400 million) in response to the pressure.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What South African Vice Consul did Harvard students blockade the speech of? </td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>South African Vice Consul Duke Kent-Brown.</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Duke Kent-Brown</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>Duke Kent-Brown</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 13.1</h3>
<p>The four-year, full-time undergraduate program comprises a minority of enrollments at the university and emphasizes instruction with an "arts and sciences focus". Between 1978 and 2008, entering students were required to complete a core curriculum of seven classes outside of their concentration. Since 2008, undergraduate students have been required to complete courses in eight General Education categories: Aesthetic and Interpretive Understanding, Culture and Belief, Empirical and Mathematical Reasoning, Ethical Reasoning, Science of Living Systems, Science of the Physical Universe, Societies of the World, and United States in the World. Harvard offers a comprehensive doctoral graduate program and there is a high level of coexistence between graduate and undergraduate degrees. The Carnegie Foundation for the Advancement of Teaching, The New York Times, and some students have criticized Harvard for its reliance on teaching fellows for some aspects of undergraduate education; they consider this to adversely affect the quality of education.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Between 1978 an d2008 four year full time undergraduate students were required to complete how many classes outside of their concentration?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>core curriculum of seven classes</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>seven</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>seven</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Post 2008 undergraduate students are required to complete how many general education classes towards degree?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>eight General Education categories</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>eight</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>eight</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 13.2</h3>
<p>Harvard's academic programs operate on a semester calendar beginning in early September and ending in mid-May. Undergraduates typically take four half-courses per term and must maintain a four-course rate average to be considered full-time. In many concentrations, students can elect to pursue a basic program or an honors-eligible program requiring a senior thesis and/or advanced course work. Students graduating in the top 4–5% of the class are awarded degrees summa cum laude, students in the next 15% of the class are awarded magna cum laude, and the next 30% of the class are awarded cum laude. Harvard has chapters of academic honor societies such as Phi Beta Kappa and various committees and departments also award several hundred named prizes annually. Harvard, along with other universities, has been accused of grade inflation, although there is evidence that the quality of the student body and its motivation have also increased. Harvard College reduced the number of students who receive Latin honors from 90% in 2004 to 60% in 2005. Moreover, the honors of "John Harvard Scholar" and "Harvard College Scholar" will now be given only to the top 5 percent and the next 5 percent of each class.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>From 2004 to 2005 Harvard reduced the number of students earning Latin honors from 90% to what?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>60%</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>60%</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>60%</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 13.3</h3>
<p>Harvard has been highly ranked by many university rankings. In particular, it has consistently topped the Academic Ranking of World Universities (ARWU) since 2003, and the THE World Reputation Rankings since 2011, when the first time such league tables were published. When the QS and Times were published in partnership as the THE-QS World University Rankings during 2004-2009, Harvard had also been regarded the first in every year. The University's undergraduate program has been continuously among the top two in the U.S. News & World Report. In 2014, Harvard topped the University Ranking by Academic Performance (URAP). It was ranked 8th on the 2013-2014 PayScale College Salary Report and 14th on the 2013 PayScale College Education Value Rankings. From a poll done by The Princeton Review, Harvard is the second most commonly named "dream college", both for students and parents in 2013, and was the first nominated by parents in 2009. In 2011, the Mines ParisTech : Professional Ranking World Universities ranked Harvard 1st university in the world in terms of number of alumni holding CEO position in Fortune Global 500 companies.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>According to the Princeton Review where has Harvard ranked as a "Dream College" in 2013</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>second most commonly</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>second</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>second</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h2>Economic_inequality</h2>
<h3>Paragraph 14.0</h3>
<p>A study by the World Institute for Development Economics Research at United Nations University reports that the richest 1% of adults alone owned 40% of global assets in the year 2000. The three richest people in the world possess more financial assets than the lowest 48 nations combined. The combined wealth of the "10 million dollar millionaires" grew to nearly $41 trillion in 2008. A January 2014 report by Oxfam claims that the 85 wealthiest individuals in the world have a combined wealth equal to that of the bottom 50% of the world's population, or about 3.5 billion people. According to a Los Angeles Times analysis of the report, the wealthiest 1% owns 46% of the world's wealth; the 85 richest people, a small part of the wealthiest 1%, own about 0.7% of the human population's wealth, which is the same as the bottom half of the population. More recently, in January 2015, Oxfam reported that the wealthiest 1 percent will own more than half of the global wealth by 2016. An October 2014 study by Credit Suisse also claims that the top 1% now own nearly half of the world's wealth and that the accelerating disparity could trigger a recession. In October 2015, Credit Suisse published a study which shows global inequality continues to increase, and that half of the world's wealth is now in the hands of those in the top percentile, whose assets each exceed $759,900. A 2016 report by Oxfam claims that the 62 wealthiest individuals own as much wealth as the poorer half of the global population combined. Oxfam's claims have however been questioned on the basis of the methodology used: by using net wealth (adding up assets and subtracting debts), the Oxfam report, for instance, finds that there are more poor people in the United States and Western Europe than in China (due to a greater tendency to take on debts).[unreliable source?][unreliable source?] Anthony Shorrocks, the lead author of the Credit Suisse report which is one of the sources of Oxfam's data, considers the criticism about debt to be a "silly argument" and "a non-issue . . . a diversion."</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What do the three richest people in the world posses more of than the lowest 48 nations together?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>financial assets</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>financial assets</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>possess more financial assets than the lowest 48 nations combined.</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>financial assets</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How much was the combined wealth of the "10 Million dollar millionaires" in 2008?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>nearly $41 trillion</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>$41 trillion</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>the "10 million dollar millionaires" grew to nearly $41 trillion in 2008</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>$41 trillion</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>How much of the global wealth will the wealthiest 1 percent own by 2016?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>half</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>more than half</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>own more than half of the global wealth by 2016</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>more than half</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.1</h3>
<p>In a purely capitalist mode of production (i.e. where professional and labor organizations cannot limit the number of workers) the workers wages will not be controlled by these organizations, or by the employer, but rather by the market. Wages work in the same way as prices for any other good. Thus, wages can be considered as a function of market price of skill. And therefore, inequality is driven by this price. Under the law of supply and demand, the price of skill is determined by a race between the demand for the skilled worker and the supply of the skilled worker. "On the other hand, markets can also concentrate wealth, pass environmental costs on to society, and abuse workers and consumers." "Markets, by themselves, even when they are stable, often lead to high levels of inequality, outcomes that are widely viewed as unfair." Employers who offer a below market wage will find that their business is chronically understaffed. Their competitors will take advantage of the situation by offering a higher wage the best of their labor. For a businessman who has the profit motive as the prime interest, it is a losing proposition to offer below or above market wages to workers.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What can concentrate wealth, pass environmental costs on to society and abuse both workers and consumers?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>markets</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>markets</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>markets</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.2</h3>
<p>A job where there are many workers willing to work a large amount of time (high supply) competing for a job that few require (low demand) will result in a low wage for that job. This is because competition between workers drives down the wage. An example of this would be jobs such as dish-washing or customer service. Competition amongst workers tends to drive down wages due to the expendable nature of the worker in relation to his or her particular job. A job where there are few able or willing workers (low supply), but a large need for the positions (high demand), will result in high wages for that job. This is because competition between employers for employees will drive up the wage. Examples of this would include jobs that require highly developed skills, rare abilities, or a high level of risk. Competition amongst employers tends to drive up wages due to the nature of the job, since there is a relative shortage of workers for the particular position. Professional and labor organizations may limit the supply of workers which results in higher demand and greater incomes for members. Members may also receive higher wages through collective bargaining, political influence, or corruption.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What type of wages result from jobs where there is low supply but high demand?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>high</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>high wages</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>high</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.3</h3>
<p>Another cause is the rate at which income is taxed coupled with the progressivity of the tax system. A progressive tax is a tax by which the tax rate increases as the taxable base amount increases. In a progressive tax system, the level of the top tax rate will often have a direct impact on the level of inequality within a society, either increasing it or decreasing it, provided that income does not change as a result of the change in tax regime. Additionally, steeper tax progressivity applied to social spending can result in a more equal distribution of income across the board. The difference between the Gini index for an income distribution before taxation and the Gini index after taxation is an indicator for the effects of such taxation.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What will have a direct impact of inequality in a system that uses a progressive tax?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>level of the top tax rate</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>level of the top tax rate</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>top tax rate</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.4</h3>
<p>An important factor in the creation of inequality is variation in individuals' access to education. Education, especially in an area where there is a high demand for workers, creates high wages for those with this education, however, increases in education first increase and then decrease growth as well as income inequality. As a result, those who are unable to afford an education, or choose not to pursue optional education, generally receive much lower wages. The justification for this is that a lack of education leads directly to lower incomes, and thus lower aggregate savings and investment. Conversely, education raises incomes and promotes growth because it helps to unleash the productive potential of the poor.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What does education in an area where there is high demand for workers tend to create?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>high wages</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>high wages</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>high wages</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.5</h3>
<p>In 2014, economists with the Standard & Poor's rating agency concluded that the widening disparity between the U.S.'s wealthiest citizens and the rest of the nation had slowed its recovery from the 2008-2009 recession and made it more prone to boom-and-bust cycles. To partially remedy the wealth gap and the resulting slow growth, S&P recommended increasing access to education. It estimated that if the average United States worker had completed just one more year of school, it would add an additional $105 billion in growth to the country's economy over five years.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>If the average U.S. worker were to complete an additional year of school, what amount of growth would be generated over 5 years?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>$105 billion</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>$105 billion</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>$105 billion</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.6</h3>
<p>Trade liberalization may shift economic inequality from a global to a domestic scale. When rich countries trade with poor countries, the low-skilled workers in the rich countries may see reduced wages as a result of the competition, while low-skilled workers in the poor countries may see increased wages. Trade economist Paul Krugman estimates that trade liberalisation has had a measurable effect on the rising inequality in the United States. He attributes this trend to increased trade with poor countries and the fragmentation of the means of production, resulting in low skilled jobs becoming more tradeable. However, he concedes that the effect of trade on inequality in America is minor when compared to other causes, such as technological innovation, a view shared by other experts. Empirical economists Max Roser and Jesus Crespo-Cuaresma find support in the data that international trade is increasing income inequality. They empirically confirm the predictions of the Stolper–Samuelson theorem regarding the effects of international trade on the distribution of incomes. Lawrence Katz estimates that trade has only accounted for 5-15% of rising income inequality. Robert Lawrence argues that technological innovation and automation has meant that low-skilled jobs have been replaced by machine labor in wealthier nations, and that wealthier countries no longer have significant numbers of low-skilled manufacturing workers that could be affected by competition from poor countries.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Compared to other causes, the effect of trade on inequality in America is what?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>minor</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>minor</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>minor</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.7</h3>
<p>In many countries, there is a Gender pay gap in favor of males in the labor market. Several factors other than discrimination may contribute to this gap. On average, women are more likely than men to consider factors other than pay when looking for work, and may be less willing to travel or relocate. Thomas Sowell, in his book Knowledge and Decisions, claims that this difference is due to women not taking jobs due to marriage or pregnancy, but income studies show that that does not explain the entire difference. A U.S. Census's report stated that in US once other factors are accounted for there is still a difference in earnings between women and men. The income gap in other countries ranges from 53% in Botswana to -40% in Bahrain.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What does a U.S. census report state that even after other factors there still exists this between earnings of men and women?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>a difference</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>difference</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>difference in earnings</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.8</h3>
<p>Plotting the relationship between level of income and inequality, Kuznets saw middle-income developing economies level of inequality bulging out to form what is now known as the Kuznets curve. Kuznets demonstrated this relationship using cross-sectional data. However, more recent testing of this theory with superior panel data has shown it to be very weak. Kuznets' curve predicts that income inequality will eventually decrease given time. As an example, income inequality did fall in the United States during its High school movement from 1910 to 1940 and thereafter.[citation needed] However, recent data shows that the level of income inequality began to rise after the 1970s. This does not necessarily disprove Kuznets' theory.[citation needed] It may be possible that another Kuznets' cycle is occurring, specifically the move from the manufacturing sector to the service sector.[citation needed] This implies that it may be possible for multiple Kuznets' cycles to be in effect at any given time.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What does Kuznets' curve predict about income inequality given time?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>eventually decrease</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>eventually decrease</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>decrease</td></tr>
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What may be possible for multiple Kuznets' cycles to be in at any given time?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>effect</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>in effect</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>effect</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.9</h3>
<p>Crime rate has also been shown to be correlated with inequality in society. Most studies looking into the relationship have concentrated on homicides – since homicides are almost identically defined across all nations and jurisdictions. There have been over fifty studies showing tendencies for violence to be more common in societies where income differences are larger. Research has been conducted comparing developed countries with undeveloped countries, as well as studying areas within countries. Daly et al. 2001 found that among U.S States and Canadian Provinces there is a tenfold difference in homicide rates related to inequality. They estimated that about half of all variation in homicide rates can be accounted for by differences in the amount of inequality in each province or state. Fajnzylber et al. (2002) found a similar relationship worldwide. Among comments in academic literature on the relationship between homicides and inequality are:</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Over how many studies have shown that violence is more common in societies with income differences?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>fifty</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>over fifty</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>fifty</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.10</h3>
<p>Following the utilitarian principle of seeking the greatest good for the greatest number – economic inequality is problematic. A house that provides less utility to a millionaire as a summer home than it would to a homeless family of five, is an example of reduced "distributive efficiency" within society, that decreases marginal utility of wealth and thus the sum total of personal utility. An additional dollar spent by a poor person will go to things providing a great deal of utility to that person, such as basic necessities like food, water, and healthcare; while, an additional dollar spent by a much richer person will very likely go to luxury items providing relatively less utility to that person. Thus, the marginal utility of wealth per person ("the additional dollar") decreases as a person becomes richer. From this standpoint, for any given amount of wealth in society, a society with more equality will have higher aggregate utility. Some studies have found evidence for this theory, noting that in societies where inequality is lower, population-wide satisfaction and happiness tend to be higher.</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What the marginal utility of wealth per income per person do as that person becomes richer?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>decreases</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>decreases</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>decreases</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.11</h3>
<p>According to International Monetary Fund economists, inequality in wealth and income is negatively correlated with the duration of economic growth spells (not the rate of growth). High levels of inequality prevent not just economic prosperity, but also the quality of a country's institutions and high levels of education. According to IMF staff economists, "if the income share of the top 20 percent (the rich) increases, then GDP growth actually declines over the medium term, suggesting that the benefits do not trickle down. In contrast, an increase in the income share of the bottom 20 percent (the poor) is associated with higher GDP growth. The poor and the middle class matter the most for growth via a number of interrelated economic, social, and political channels."</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>What happens to the GDP growth of a country if the income share of the top 20 percent increases, according to IMF staff economists? </td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>declines</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>declines</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>declines</td></tr>
</table>
<hr>
<h3>Paragraph 14.12</h3>
<p>In 1993, Galor and Zeira showed that inequality in the presence of credit market imperfections has a long lasting detrimental effect on human capital formation and economic development. A 1996 study by Perotti examined the channels through which inequality may affect economic growth. He showed that, in accordance with the credit market imperfection approach, inequality is associated with lower level of human capital formation (education, experience, and apprenticeship) and higher level of fertility, and thereby lower levels of growth. He found that inequality is associated with higher levels of redistributive taxation, which is associated with lower levels of growth from reductions in private savings and investment. Perotti concluded that, "more equal societies have lower fertility rates and higher rates of investment in education. Both are reflected in higher rates of growth. Also, very unequal societies tend to be politically and socially unstable, which is reflected in lower rates of investment and therefore growth."</p><br>
<table border="1">
<tr><td>Question</td><td>Inequality in the presence of credit market imperfections has what kind of effect on human capital formation?</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>detrimental</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>long lasting detrimental effect</td></tr>
<tr><td>Possible answer</td><td>long lasting detrimental</td></tr>
</table>